Medium2 marksMultiple Choice
Working Capital ManagementSection AWorking Capital ManagementCash ManagementBaumol Model

ACCA · Question 10 · Working Capital Management

Section A

AlgoTrade LLC, a high-frequency trading firm, requires $2,000,000 in cash over the next year to cover operational expenses. The cost of converting marketable securities into cash is $50 per transaction. The firm can earn 5% per annum on its marketable securities.

Using the Baumol model, what is the optimal cash conversion amount (the economic order quantity for cash)?

Answer options:

A.

$31,623

B.

$44,721

C.

$63,246

D.

$200,000

How to approach this question

Apply the Baumol model formula: Q = square root of [(2 * Cost per transaction * Annual cash demand) / Interest rate].

Full Answer

C.$63,246✓ Correct
The Baumol model calculates the optimal cash balance to minimize the sum of transaction costs and opportunity costs (lost interest). Formula: Q = √[(2 * C * D) / i] Where C = $50, D = $2,000,000, i = 0.05. Q = √[(2 * 50 * 2,000,000) / 0.05] Q = √[200,000,000 / 0.05] Q = √4,000,000,000 = $63,245.55 (rounded to $63,246).

Common mistakes

Using the interest rate as a whole number (5) instead of a decimal (0.05), or forgetting to take the square root.

Practice the full ACCA FM — Financial Management Practice Exam 6

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