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    PracticeACCAACCA FM — Financial Management Practice Exam 4Question 09
    Medium2 marksShort Answer
    Working Capital ManagementWorking capital managementCash managementSection A

    ACCA · Question 09 · Working Capital Management

    Section A

    RetailCorp requires $2,000,000 in cash over the next year to meet its steady operational needs. The cost of converting marketable securities into cash is $50 per transaction. The annual opportunity cost of holding cash is 5%.

    Using the Baumol cash management model, what is the optimal cash conversion amount (to the nearest whole dollar)?

    How to approach this question

    Apply the Baumol model formula: Q = square root of [(2 * C * D) / i], where C is transaction cost, D is annual demand, and i is the interest rate.

    Full Answer

    The Baumol model calculates the optimal amount of cash to transfer from marketable securities to a current account. Formula: $Q = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times C \times D}{i}}$ $C = \$50$ $D = \$2,000,000$ $i = 0.05$ $Q = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 50 \times 2,000,000}{0.05}}$ $Q = \sqrt{\frac{200,000,000}{0.05}}$ $Q = \sqrt{4,000,000,000}$ $Q = 63,245.55$ Rounded to the nearest whole dollar: $63,246.

    Common mistakes

    Using a percentage (5) instead of a decimal (0.05) for the interest rate in the denominator.
    Question 08All questionsQuestion 10

    Practice the full ACCA FM — Financial Management Practice Exam 4

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